game theory, signalling, asymmetric info
externalities and public goods
are there infinitely many ces utility functions?
alpha + beta != 0 necessarily
CES utility : ANALYSIS
u = \alpha \ln x + \beta \ln y : why is mux = f(x) here, but the cb version is mux = f(x,y) ?
if this and cob douglas are equivalent, how come here mux = 1/x (which is a fn only of x), but with cb, its a function of x and y?
well, its not a big deal, bc utility is ordinal.
u = x^{\alpha} + \beta \ln y : [corner solution, lagrangian with inequalities]
u = x + y + \ln y but what about x+z+lny, where z and y are the same item?
u = x - \frac{1}{y}
u = \ln x + \ln (\ln y)
DO WE EVER ASSUME THAT u_xy > 0 ?
why do firms and consumers have to max profit, they cant do it, why should we model them like they can? why dont we think of profit max and consumer max as better technology? instead of a given? ie. the better our technology, the harder to max, and as you adjust to it, you get better at optimizing
i guess at the core, its easier to make a mistake than to not make a mistake. accuracy depends on knowledge, which increases with investment in nerds, and ppl who listen to them
if it is easier to make a mistake than to not, then most ppl will make mistakes, some will do right by hiring nerds and increase their odds, but movement in and out of economy by new firms means that the default will be mistakes
** are there any functions which have a negative sub effect? ** ie. px down, you feel richer, you buy less of x as you get richer, so you actually sub away from it (x is an inferior good) ** consider this in the context of exchange rates too
why would gov be needed if ppl made perfect decisions?
we shouldnt assume ppl make perfect decisions in a bubble, and that they miss other, obviously good decisions
ppl make bad decisions more than good, which is why we need the gov
utility : u(\mathbf x) = u(x_1, x_2, \dots , x_n)
marginal utility : the increase in utility from an increase in a good, all else being equal : \nabla {u(\mathbf x)} = \big [ \frac{\partial u}{\partial x_1} \frac{\partial u}{\partial x_2} ... \frac{\partial u}{\partial x_n} \big ]^T = \big [ u_1(\mathbf x) \dots u_n(\mathbf x)]^T
non-satiation : marginal utility is always positive; more is always better; each additional unit always increases utility : u_x \gt 0
decreasing marginal utility : while marginal utility always increases with x, it increases less and less. Each additional unit is good, but not as good as the one before it : u_{xx} \lt 0
idc : indifference curve : the map between x and y where du = 0. In the case of u = x^{\alpha}y^{1-\alpha}, we get y = \Big ( \dfrac{\bar u}{x^{\alpha}} \Big ) ^{\frac{1}{1-\alpha}}
mrs : marginal rate of substitution : the negative of the slope of the indifference curve
The slope of the indifference curve is \frac{dy}{dx} = -\frac{u_x}{u_y} and so the mrs is defined as : MRS_{xy} = \frac{u_x}{u_y}
decreasing mrs : requires some ANALYSIS
elasticity of substitution : requires some ANALYSIS
homogeneous : f(a \cdot \mathbf{x}) = a^k \cdot f(\mathbf{x}) is homogenous degree k
homothetic : special case of homogeneous where k=1 : f(a \cdot \mathbf{x})=a \cdot f(\mathbf{x}) Example : Cobb-Douglas : u(ax,ay)=(ax)^{\alpha}(ay)^{1-\alpha}=a(x^{\alpha}y^{1-\alpha})=a \cdot u(x,y)
production functions
CES production: q=f(k,l) = (k^{\rho}+L^{\rho})^{\gamma/\rho} , where rho < 1, gamma > 0
elasticity of sub for ces, check out cases, same almost as utility
oligopoly
what is good in the short term might be bad in the long term
pcomp
profit max under pcomp : \pi = pq-c(q) \rightarrow p=MC
\pi = p \ln z - wz , where q = \ln z, so z=e^q
\pi = p \ln e^q - we^q
\pi = p q - we^q
limiting factor
CRS : ie. f(L,K) where f(aL,aK)=af(L,K). IF profit = f(L,K) - wL -rK, then the firm can keep increasing profit as long as it increasing L and K in proportion, such that MPL/w=MPK/r : its expansion path
but if f(L\bar{K}), then if you tried following the expansion path, youd get a smaller amt for L, because the idea is moving L-K together, in which case u can increase profit forever, but if not, you max L as tho K is fixed, which it is, and that goes until MPL = w/p. the ratios MP_i/p_i will not be equal.
We cannot observe MPL/w = MPK/r, because I will calculate it.
the expansion path it gives is a product of that equality.
which does not hold. the equality will give z2
but then theres the added bit from maxing at that k_supplied.
if u cud spend $ how u wanted, youd want this ratio
(1) : z_2^{expansion} = \dfrac{\beta}{1- \beta} \dfrac{p_2}{w} \cdot k
you would choose to expand along that path
but if k is limited, then you can no longer follow this path.
so u put more money into z than this path suggests
so while your profits go up by adding to z
they dont go up as much as they wud if you could spend more on k
since k is limited, z_2^* = z_2^{expansion} + squeezing z
is z**alpha*(k+1)**(1-alpha) CRS? not exactly, but it will keep buying z and k. show it
a fair bet : E[x] = 0 , for example E[x] = 0.5 \cdot (x) + 0.5 \cdot (-x) = 0
St Petersburg paradox
expected utility : E[u(x)] = \displaystyle\sum p(x) \cdot u(x)
risk aversion :
this agent avoids a fair bet : u(w) \gt E[u(w+x)], where E[x] = 0
insurance : pay to avoid risk, where risk is x such that where E[x] < 0
risk aversion : Pratt's measure r(w) = -u''/u'
risk aversion : analysis via Taylor series expansion
risk aversion and wealth : the problem with u=lnw
risk aversion and wealth : exponential wealth utility u = -e-Aw and CARA
normally distributed risk E[u]=\int u(w) \cdot f(w,\mu,\sigma) dw, where f \backsim N(\mu,\sigma^2)
relative risk aversion : an upgrade in thinking rr(w) = wr(w) = -W u''/u'
crra, (p221) the person is concerned with the percentage of loss. ln(w-fw) = 0.5*ln(w-xw) + 0.5*ln(w+xw) -> f = 1-(+sqrt(1-x**2))
so that result means that such a person will pay f% to avoid a x% fair bet, no matter how much wealth they have. that's kind of an odd result. a gazillionaire would have f% to avoid an x% fair bet, and some poor fella would do the same (if they had the same level of R in the crra)
risk aversion and wealth : a summary
How to deal with risk :
options
pricing an insurance product to max profit based on known risk
portfolio problem
f(x) = \dfrac{1}{\sigma \sqrt{2 \pi}} \cdot e^{-\frac{1}{2} \cdot ( \frac{x - \mu}{\sigma} ) ^2}
why do i remember a bit where i integrated a big scary looking integral, it might have been the expected value of the normal distribution
Agents are consumers and owners of the firms. Amy has a net, and bob has a hoe. amy can catch x fish, and bob can grow y apples but any can catch more fish is bob helps, and bob can grow more apples in amy helps so bob helps amy catch fish, and amy gives bob fish as payment and amy helps bob grow apples, and bob gives amy apples thats a GE model 2 consumers, 2 firms, 2 goods the agents are both consumers and owners of the firms
government : all consumers want a good [water, electricity, roads] and firms wont provide it. it's free for consumers, but they pay for it in income tax. and firms pay tax also. so there is a personal income tax and corporate income tax rate.
1x2x2 1 consumer, 2 firms, 1 intermediate good, 1 final good
1 consumer, 2 firms. 1 makes capital. 1 makes goods. consumer owns both.
before anything else, add multiple periods
consumer max: \alpha_i \ln c_i + \beta_i \ln b_i
budget : leisure_endowment*wage + savings + money_endowment + dividends
high and low skill workers. with firms hire both
GE: 2 consumers, 2 firms, 2 goods. one firm's output is demanded by both consumers and the other firm.
there is a bank, and every agent can borrow money. the bank can create money. and charge interest per period. there need to be 2 periods, in order to compare today and tmrw.
multiple periods
money exists : consumers have endowment of TIME + MONEY, firms have MONEY. consumers want money since it gives utility, but also to spend it. the amt of money they want depends on their age.
simultaneous oligopoly. compete on price. show nash eq.